davidlimbaugh Posted April 29, 2008 Report Share Posted April 29, 2008 Thats what I thought, but twice umps said no. I just thought maybe the rules are different in high school ball. Thanks for your input and Iroot4vols2 They may have felt the batter didn't make an attempt to get out of the way - that was a point of emphasis this year from NFHS, see http://www.swua.net/baseball_poe.html for example. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bigclittleh Posted April 29, 2008 Report Share Posted April 29, 2008 bases loaded with one out. Ground ball to first. 1B steps on bag and throws to 2B. Runner runs past the bag and knocks the ball loose from the SS (who is covering). The runner could have slid and been safe with no collision easily. Umpire calls runner safe at 2B. what the correct call? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
riverdaleman Posted April 29, 2008 Report Share Posted April 29, 2008 bases loaded with one out. Ground ball to first. 1B steps on bag and throws to 2B. Runner runs past the bag and knocks the ball loose from the SS (who is covering). The runner could have slid and been safe with no collision easily. Umpire calls runner safe at 2B. what the correct call? THIS is a play that we would really have to see in order for us to give you our opinion to give you a "correct" call the things you described is a judgement call Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
oldschool09 Posted April 29, 2008 Report Share Posted April 29, 2008 bases loaded with one out. Ground ball to first. 1B steps on bag and throws to 2B. Runner runs past the bag and knocks the ball loose from the SS (who is covering). The runner could have slid and been safe with no collision easily. Umpire calls runner safe at 2B. what the correct call? If the runner knocked the ball out on purpose than he is out. Just like A-ROD a few years ago ,and if the run scored before the out than i would say it counts because there is no force out since the firstbaseman chose the get the force at first. It would have to be the judgement of the umpire. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
catsbackr Posted April 29, 2008 Report Share Posted April 29, 2008 If the runner knocked the ball out on purpose than he is out. Just like A-ROD a few years ago ,and if the run scored before the out than i would say it counts because there is no force out since the firstbaseman chose the get the force at first. It would have to be the judgement of the umpire. Not necessarily. If the runner acquired the bag and then knocked the ball out and was not subsequently tagged, he is not out. He could be ejected for MC, but in the scenario described, he would not be out. Kind of like a runner maliciously contacting the catcher set up BEHIND the plate. The runner steps on plate then initiates MC. Run scores, runner ejected. Kind of a HTBT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
riverdaleman Posted April 29, 2008 Report Share Posted April 29, 2008 HTBT=i am assuming had to be there right?...yeah that is what i was saying really hard to give a correct answer on a play like that without being there... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fallguy Posted May 4, 2008 Report Share Posted May 4, 2008 Different situation than this thread was started for but anyway. Player 1 starts a game both in the field and in the batting order, the second time Player 1 is scheduled to hit the coach anounnces player 2 will PH and Player 1 will re-enter. When the half inning is over Player 3 takes Player 1's spot on defense. That spot in the batting order didn't come up the next at bat, but the next time on defense Player 1 was back out at originial spot and hit for himself the next time up. Is this legal? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
riverdaleman Posted May 4, 2008 Report Share Posted May 4, 2008 Different situation than this thread was started for but anyway. Player 1 starts a game both in the field and in the batting order, the second time Player 1 is scheduled to hit the coach anounnces player 2 will PH and Player 1 will re-enter. When the half inning is over Player 3 takes Player 1's spot on defense. That spot in the batting order didn't come up the next at bat, but the next time on defense Player 1 was back out at originial spot and hit for himself the next time up. Is this legal? yes although it was announced it is not offical reentry until he actually re enters in fact even though it was announced the coach should come and tell the umpire that A. not only should the coach told the umpire that player 3 came in Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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